1 Corinthian 5:1-131 Corinthian chapter 5 talks about an immoral man. What is his act of immorality? He is guilty of having his father’s wife (probably his step mother). Paul states this act was so heinous that such things are not even reported among gentiles, heathen unbelievers or pagans. Those who preach "doctrine of eternal security" frequently use this passage to teach the validity of this doctrine, wherein we are taught, once you are saved, then you are always saved. They teach that one will never lose his or her salvation, even if he or she keeps sinning and die in sin without repentence. So, this implies, that after one believes in Jesus, he or she is incapable of getting lost eternally.
Let’s closely examine, as to what does the passage actually say.
As we read the portion of the scripture, a couple of question arises in our mind. Let us accept for a while on the basis of "doctrine of eternal security", that a man once saved, is always saved. The reason being; he is saved by Grace and not by works (as the doctrine supposes). The doctrine says; since one has the righteousness of Christ by faith, nothing can affect the righteousness of Christ; no, not even sin. The subscriber’s of this doctrine endorse, that, if a man could commit such a sin (i.e., as mentioned in 1Cor 5) can still be saved on the day of Christ; which seriously implies, that our sin cannot take us to hell.
Well, I do believe that we have the righteousness of Christ by faith; and we are saved by Grace; but can't possibly digest that how we can abuse the Grace, and yet live eternally with the giver of the Grace, Jesus?
As we read the portion of the scripture, a couple of question arises in our mind. Let us accept for a while on the basis of "doctrine of eternal security", that a man once saved, is always saved. The reason being; he is saved by Grace and not by works (as the doctrine supposes). The doctrine says; since one has the righteousness of Christ by faith, nothing can affect the righteousness of Christ; no, not even sin. The subscriber’s of this doctrine endorse, that, if a man could commit such a sin (i.e., as mentioned in 1Cor 5) can still be saved on the day of Christ; which seriously implies, that our sin cannot take us to hell.
Well, I do believe that we have the righteousness of Christ by faith; and we are saved by Grace; but can't possibly digest that how we can abuse the Grace, and yet live eternally with the giver of the Grace, Jesus?
Firstly, Paul says, “… he who has done this deed might be taken away from among you.” (1Cor 5:2)
Taken away from among you? Why? Now, if this man is really righteous by faith and have the righteousness of Christ, why should he be excommunicated (thrown out) from the church; since, he is still right with Christ by faith, and he is justified by faith? His immoral life deeds does not make him wrong with Christ. Should then, a man who is right with Christ be excommunicated? Instead, if the church leader were really troubling him, Paul should have advocated and protected this man. Why should Paul demand, that the believer’s should not even eat and drink with such immoral person? (Vs 11). And Paul further clarifies that he is not talking about unbelievers but rather believers. (Vs 10)
Secondly, Paul says, “…deliver such a one to Satan.” (1Cor 5:5)
Why should a loving brother who is saved by Grace, having the righteousness of Christ be delivered to Satan? The immoral man who is into such filthy sin is already under the influence of Satan, then why does Paul still asked the Church to handover such a one to Satan. What does it actually mean? I believe it simply implies that they ought to put him away and leave him in (as in Rom 1:26) in his sinful ways. If such a one doesn’t repent then to leave such a one in his conduct, as God does. (as in Mat 18:17)
Thirdly, Paul further says that the purpose handing over to Satan is, “… for the destruction of the flesh” (1Cor 5:5) what does this mean? Who will destroy the flesh and how? Does this teach us that handing over a brother or sister in the hands of Satan will finally save them, even if they continue in Sin? Then, have all the sinning unrepentant believers in the church excommunicated, so that they will saved in the day of Christ. Church will not have take further trouble for those troublemakers.
Fourthly, why does Paul says, “… his spirit shall be saved in the day of Christ,”(1Cor 5:5) They say, “…can you see that the scripture says such a man shall be finally be saved?"
Read this carefully now. When we say that “… his spirit shall be saved,” are we not also accepting the fact that his spirit at that moment is in some form of eternal danger? For why should they try to save one who is already saved. If the purpose of handing over of such a one to Satan is for the saving of his spirit, then we must also agree that His spirit is in danger, or unless we hand him over to Satan. Because we further read “… that his spirit may be saved in the day of Christ.”
Here comes the biggest question; while we are confidently affirming, that such a man is already saved by faith and cannot lose his salvation for his immoral conducts. Why should a saved man be saved the second time? Is this possible? Does it really make sense? How can whom God has already saved, can be saved by mere human efforts? So, therefore, we need to conclude saying, Paul was talking about saving somebody, who is indeed capable of losing something.
If there is no issue of losing something; then by logic too; there is no question of saving either. Question of saving comes only then; when there is an issue of losing or getting something lost. (emphasis added).
If this man has nothing to lose, why even bother him sir?
Is Paul contradicting himselff? In Ephesians 2:5, he says "you are saved by Grace;" then, now, why such a man who is already saved, needs to be saved in the day of Christ? The obvious question is "saved from what?" Did you ever hear of saving a saved man? This sounds pretty ridiculous.I am sure that the We need to understand that, immorality of this man was leading him to a dimension wherein he was not safe, hence believer's were commanded to handover such a one, to his debased life style, that he may finally realize and repent, after being obsessed with the ways of flesh.
Why does Paul forbid the Corinthians to have fellowship with such believer’s who are extortionist, sexual immoral, covetous or idolaters; After all, they are Saved by Grace, and are right with Christ. Then do they still have to prove their righteousness? Why should we not dine together with people who are right with Christ then? Paul then is guilty of instigating and falsely stirring up the believers against each other.
Lastly, Paul calls this immoral brother "evil person" (1Cor 5:13) How come a man, who is right with Christ; having righteousness of Christ be "evil person"? Surely, he can’t be evil, for what evil (from Satan) has to do with Christ?
I suppose, somewhere, we are definitely going wrong and we are unable to divide the word of God rightly (2Tim 2:15), and this is causing lots of discomfort to the body of Christ. Therefore, brethren spend as much time as you can with the Word of God, read and meditate the word, and do not turn to left or to the right. The anointing that abides in you shall teach you. (1 John 1:27)
